A) I quoted several scripture references as justification for my statement.
B) WHERE in the world did I call Jesus a sinner?
Catholic tactic.
Accuse someone of something outrageous and then ask them why they believe it and make them waste the next couple years demanding an answer and defending themselves from something they never said.
You call Mary the Mother of God a sinner, so logically Jesus would be conceived in sin. Why wouldn’t God give a special grace to Mary so that she was not conceived in sin so that sin would not affect Jesus? Why would The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.
We also know of another very prominent exception to the rule: Jesus (Heb. 4:15). So if Paul’s statement in Romans 3 includes an exception for the New Adam (Jesus), one may argue that an exception for the New Eve (Mary) can also be made.
The objection is also raised that if Mary were without sin, she would be equal to God. In the beginning, God created Adam, Eve, and the angels without sin, but none were equal to God. Most of the angels never sinned, and all souls in heaven are without sin. This does not detract from the glory of God, but manifests it by the work he has done in sanctifying his creation. Sinning does not make one human. On the contrary, it is when man is without sin that he is most fully what God intends him to be.