You call Mary the Mother of God a sinner, so logically Jesus would be conceived in sin. Why wouldn’t God give a special grace to Mary so that she was not conceived in sin so that sin would not affect Jesus? Why would The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.
We also know of another very prominent exception to the rule: Jesus (Heb. 4:15). So if Paul’s statement in Romans 3 includes an exception for the New Adam (Jesus), one may argue that an exception for the New Eve (Mary) can also be made.
The objection is also raised that if Mary were without sin, she would be equal to God. In the beginning, God created Adam, Eve, and the angels without sin, but none were equal to God. Most of the angels never sinned, and all souls in heaven are without sin. This does not detract from the glory of God, but manifests it by the work he has done in sanctifying his creation. Sinning does not make one human. On the contrary, it is when man is without sin that he is most fully what God intends him to be.
Nope because for one thing, the sin nature comes through the father.
The other thing, which Catholics don't even seem to consider, is that if God could do it for Mary being born of sinful parents, then He could do it for Jesus being born of a sinful mother.
Where has that been expressed?
Please provide the post number.
NO IT ISN"T and I think you have been shown that before. In no way can the word kecharitomene be made to mean "full of grace".
The Bible says all have sinned. He did not exempt Mary. Even she admitted she needed a Savior.
Sin had to and DID affect Jesus...
Heb 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
Heb 2:15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.
Heb 2:16 For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.
Heb 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
Heb 2:18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
Rom 8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
Rom 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
Rom 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
You see that??? God did NOT send his Son in the likeness of SINLESS flesh...
What is it you guys are arguing with...You don't use any scripture...Just the customs of your religion???