[Elsie]

How could she become so prior to Christ’s sacrifice on the cross, unless, as Catholics hold, she was specially gifted through God’s will to be born without original sin?

OOOPS!

Sinless Mary??

 

 

Luke 2:22-24

 

When the time came for the purification rites required by the Law of Moses, Joseph and Mary took him to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord  (as it is written in the Law of the Lord, “Every firstborn male is to be consecrated to the Lord”),  and to offer a sacrifice in keeping with what is said in the Law of the Lord: “a pair of doves or two young pigeons.”

 

Leviticus 12:7-8

 

Then he shall offer it before the LORD and make atonement for her, and she shall be cleansed from the flow of her blood. This is the law for her who bears a child, whether a male or a female.
'But if she cannot afford a lamb, then she shall take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, the one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering; and the priest shall make atonement for her, and she will be clean.'"

[I-ambush]

Yes, Mary and Joseph were faithful Jews, so they made the offering in accordance with the law; do you believe that childbirth really makes the woman impure? Do you believe that physical deformity or infirmity implies sinfulness, as did Jews of the time?