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To: Iscool

The statement “All have sinned” was made in a context where Mary was not the topic. The author had no intention of addressing exceptions. He wasn’t writing ABOUT Mary; he wasn’t writing TO Mary. He was writing to an audience that WAS 100% sinners. And if he was thinking of future generations of Christians at all, he would know that 100% of THEM would be sinners.

Infants and mentally disabled people are incapable of sin. On the basis of a single verse of Scripture, ripped out of context, you take the repulsive, preposterous position that they are sinners.

Do you hold that JESUS is a sinner?

Using a single sentence of ANY document, including Scripture, to “answer” a question or to “prove” a point that the author wasn’t even discussing or even thinking about, is to twist, exploit, and misuse that document.

There’s a long history of that kind of “interpretation” of Scripture. For example:

Several authors of Scripture mention slaves or slavery, without ever discussing its morality. They simply mention it as they would any social reality. In their time, the morality of slavery was not being discussed or debated by anybody. In later centuries, these verses were twisted and exploited as “teaching” that slavery is APPROVED BY GOD.

Before you can know what a verse in Scripture means, you must know what the HUMAN AUTHOR was discussing, and what he was not even thinking about. One must know that before leaping to conclusions about what the Holy Spirit intended to teach by that passage.

It is NEVER a valid use of Scripture to rip a word, phrase, or sentence from its context, as though it was intended to answer questions the author was not even thinking about.


1,203 posted on 01/27/2015 6:45:11 PM PST by Arthur McGowan
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To: Arthur McGowan
It is NEVER a valid use of Scripture to rip a word, phrase, or sentence from its context, as though it was intended to answer questions the author was not even thinking about.

It is ALWAYS a valid use of Catholic teaching to rip a word, phrase, or sentence from its context, along with any others one needs, to backup a tradition that started way back when. This practice is intended to address things that GOD didn't remember to add to His Holy Word, answering questions that even HE was not even thinking about.

1,215 posted on 01/27/2015 7:01:32 PM PST by Elsie ( Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: Arthur McGowan
It is NEVER a valid use of Scripture to rip a word, phrase, or sentence from its context, as though it was intended to answer questions the author was not even thinking about.

Criticism from you one verse wonders...Accusing us of doing what you do...

The word 'all' means all regardless of who was in the audience at the time...Even Enoch and Elijah were sinners...

Rom_5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

Rom 3:19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
Rom 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Mary was under the law...She was a sinner...

Gal 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

1Jn 1:8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
1Jn 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
1Jn 1:10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

This includes Mary...But ok, now the ball is in your court...Just provide one single verse showing Mary was sinless...

Well, we know you can't possibly do that so we'll skip that...

But to be honest, I am dumbfounded that people of your position don't know this stuff...

Rom 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Rom_5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

This also applies to born again Christians who are not under the law...

Rom_7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet

Rom_7:8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.

Are you getting any of this??? I have a feeling you aren't...

Mary was under the law...She knew what sin was and it would have been impossible for her not to sin...Jesus is the only person who never sinned...

I will draw your attention to the fact of these scriptures I posted that without the knowledge of the law, there can be no sin committed...Even under grace...

The law points out sin...If you don't know the law, you can not sin...Even what is referred to as the natural law of common sense...If you don't know it's a sin to lust after something and you do lust after something, it is not a sin...

God was pretty smart to lay out this stuff so we can't get confused with babies and the mentally incapable...If they don't know what the law is, they can not sin...

So, knowing that...KNOWING THAT, we can easily conclude that 'all have sinned' does leave a loophole...But as babies grow a little, they will become sinners...And unfortunately for you guys Mary does not fall into that loophole...

Mary knew the law...And as such, was a sinner...Mary was under the law...Mary knew she needed a Savior because she knew she was a sinner...Babies don't need a Savior, they are home free...

Mary was never sinless...Your religion doesn't have a jot or tittle to prove otherwise; it's just a pipedream that one of your religious ancestors made up...

So when Paul said 'all have sinned' we know it was referring to all who had knowedge of sin....And how do we know that??? Because we read the 'rest of the story'...

1,225 posted on 01/27/2015 7:46:18 PM PST by Iscool
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To: Arthur McGowan; Iscool
The statement “All have sinned” was made in a context where Mary was not the topic. The author had no intention of addressing exceptions. He wasn’t writing ABOUT Mary; he wasn’t writing TO Mary. He was writing to an audience that WAS 100% sinners. And if he was thinking of future generations of Christians at all, he would know that 100% of THEM would be sinners.

You know what Paul was thinking and why he wrote what he did?

You know what the Holy Spirit was thinking and why He inspired what he did?

Talk about mind reading.

1,274 posted on 01/28/2015 4:25:47 AM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: Arthur McGowan; Iscool
>>Do you hold that JESUS is a sinner?<<

Jesus took the sins of us all upon Himself. What part of that do you not understand?

>>Using a single sentence of ANY document, including Scripture, to “answer” a question or to “prove” a point that the author wasn’t even discussing or even thinking about, is to twist, exploit, and misuse that document.<<

Like "on this rock I will build my church" single sentence, misuse, twist, and exploit?

>>There’s a long history of that kind of “interpretation” of Scripture.<<

Like the totally twisted "she shall crush your head"?

>>Before you can know what a verse in Scripture means, you must know what the HUMAN AUTHOR<<

So you don't believe that scripture is the inspired words of the Holy Spirit?

>>It is NEVER a valid use of Scripture to rip a word, phrase, or sentence from its context, as though it was intended to answer questions the author was not even thinking about.<<

Yet the Catholic Church is built on taking individual verses and building false doctrine.

1,298 posted on 01/28/2015 5:18:16 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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