Referring to a post full of errors does not now make it true.
>>Because, Revelation 12! She's portrayed as being in Heaven<<
No it does not as has been shown many times on these pages.
>>Just about every Marian prophecy, type, or foreshadowing in the Old Testament speaks either of her Motherhood, her sinlessness, or her being raised to the King's right hand.<<
Only in the paganism of Catholicism.
>>That's something so few people have even looked into: the wealth of Mary-related prophecy in the Old Testament.<<
Send us to a site that has so many errors of scripture is not helping your case. Let me give you one example. The site includes this phrase. "In fact, we argue as Catholics “the woman” to represent the people of God down through the centuries, whether Old Covenant Israel or the New Covenant Church, “the Israel of God” (Gal. 6:16)." They use that to attempt to show that the "church" has superseded the nation of Israel. But when we look to the Greek text we find this.
Galatians 6:16 And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.
Nice subtle word change ey? If I said "peace to you, and to your husband" would you think I was claiming you both were the same person? That word change by the Catholic Church is nothing less then Satanic.
To put ones unquestioning faith in the Catholic Church will not lead to a happy ending. God said "come out of her my people" for a reason.
Other than what I address here, the rest of your post to Mrs. Don-o is your opinion of what she posted, so really proof of nothing.
Regarding Gal 6:16:
Galatians 6:16 And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.
I submit what you said is undeniable, that is, St. Paul is addressing two groups of people here. However this doesn’t necessarily negate what Staples implied in the link Mrs. Don-o provided. This is because, taking the verse literally and with no extraneous thought, the reader is forced to realize St. Paul is wishing both the Galatians and the Israel of God “peace and mercy”.
Is this all that can be reasonably inferred from that verse though? That is, are we to believe St. Paul wished “peace and mercy” ONLY on the Galatians and the Israel of God?
No of course not (or else we have to believe St Paul would never wish US “peace and mercy”) and here is where the verse can be interpreted in two ways.
One, it might be saying what you are saying, and that is “to as many Gentiles who walk in this way, peace and mercy, and peace and mercy on the Israel of God”.
Or it could also be saying, “As many of you Galatians who walk this way, peace and mercy, and peace and mercy to the whole Israel of God” (or the Church)
The point is there is no way (divorced from traditional Christian teaching that is) to know to which group of people St. Paul was referring when he wrote the phrase “as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them”. He could have meant all Gentiles who “walk according to this rule” or all Galatians who “walk according to this rule”.
Either way the verse makes sense, it’s just that it has different implications as to who the “Israel of God” is, depending on how one interprets the first group of people. But we can’t force either belief into that verse to use it as a proof-text of identifying the “Israel of God”.
I’m not sure Staples was using it as a proof text in that manner (he seems to be using it descriptively), but if he was he’d be as in error as you. Regardless, there’s nothing in Gal 6:16 itself that forces the reader to disbelieve the Church is the “Israel of God”.