Please read:
http://catholicstand.com/defense-immaculate-conception-part-3/
As Gabriel addressed Mary as Hail, Full of Grace, how could there be sin? Wouldn’t God have want a pure sinless person without sin to bear his Son?
Acts 6:8 Now Stephen, a man full (plērēs) of God's grace and power, performed great wonders and signs among the people.
Was Stephen sinless?
>>Wouldn’t God have want a pure sinless person without sin to bear his Son?<<
NO. Are you saying that God could make Mary sinless having been born of sinful parents but not Christ?
yes...i've read that. IIRC in the first one they admitted no Scriptural support for this can be found or sustained.
Catholicism has already admitted you cannot find support for this in Scripture. Not even in Luke 1:28 wish for it as they may.
http://www.catholic.org/encyclopedia/view.php?id=6056
This website bills itself as the source for information on catholicism.
No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the term kecharitomene (full of grace ) serves only as an illustration, not as a proof of the dogma.
From the texts Proverbs 8 and Ecclesiasticus 24 (which exalt the Wisdom of God and which in the liturgy are applied to Mary, the most beautiful work of God's Wisdom), or from the Canticle of Canticles ( 4:7 , "Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is not a spot in thee"), no theological conclusion can be drawn. These passages, applied to the Mother of God , may be readily understood by those who know the privilege of Mary, but do not avail to prove the doctrine dogmatically, and are therefore omitted from the Constitution "Ineffabilis Deus". For the theologian it is a matter of conscience not to take an extreme position by applying to a creature texts which might imply the prerogatives of God.
Douay-Rheims and the Aramic Bible in English are the only two major translationstwo who continue to translate Luke1:28 as "full of grace".
Can there be an appeal to "tradition" from the ECFs?
From this summary it appears that the belief in Mary's immunity from sin in her conception was prevalent amongst the Fathers, especially those of the Greek Church. The rhetorical character, however, of many of these and similar passages prevents us from laying too much stress on them, and interpreting them in a strictly literal sense. The Greek Fathers never formally or explicitly discussed the question of the Immaculate Conception.
The catholic cannot appeal to Scripture based on their own admission.
The catholic cannot appeal to tradition based on their own admission.
So, I keep asking....what is the catholic appealing to?
Your chosen religion has made this claim; and they have answered it to your satisfaction.
There is NO evidence, however, that such a greeting MEANS what Rome claims that it does.
And this is a statement that contains NO logic; only speculation.
Rahab, a whore in Jericho, is in Christ's lineage.
How did GOD possibly allow THAT to happen???
Where sin abounds, grace much more abounds.
Only sinners need grace. If Mary were indeed without sin, she would not need grace.
Romans 5:20 Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more