Why do catholics persist with this false translation when it has been shown and explained this is not how the greek records it nor is it how it should be translated?
I'm really curious.
I'd actually rather leave it in the Greek, which means so much MORE than the rather simplistic "Full of Grace."#126 - Kecharitomene (LINK) grammatically captures the much deeper, more intricate significance of this "fullness of grace."
This is a brilliant word, a packed word, a unique word used once and only once in human history, by an Angel of the Lord, and only to describe one person: Mary.
The grammatical form conveys that this "fullness of grace" is passive, past, continuing, perfect, and nominative.
In other words, something was done FOR her, in the past, persisting in its effect, to a complete degree, and that specifies (as a name, title or nominative) who she is in God's eyes.
I think God's choice of Koine Greek as the language in which to write the New Testament, was providential in itself. Such wonderful things we can learn from these words of the Word of God.
shown and explained by who???those who wandered onto the scene 11,600 years after the event??
my Douay version states Luke 1:28 and the angel being come in said unto her: hail full of grace, the Lord is with thee,blessed art thou among women. Translated 1582. I have no idea of what the kjv says about anything and I'll take the translation from the Vulgate as pretty much the truth.