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To: ealgeone; Gamecock
Well, you've got a point.

I'd actually rather leave it in the Greek, which means so much MORE than the rather simplistic "Full of Grace."#126 - Kecharitomene (LINK) grammatically captures the much deeper, more intricate significance of this "fullness of grace."

This is a brilliant word, a packed word, a unique word used once and only once in human history, by an Angel of the Lord, and only to describe one person: Mary.

The grammatical form conveys that this "fullness of grace" is passive, past, continuing, perfect, and nominative.

In other words, something was done FOR her, in the past, persisting in its effect, to a complete degree, and that specifies (as a name, title or nominative) who she is in God's eyes.

I think God's choice of Koine Greek as the language in which to write the New Testament, was providential in itself. Such wonderful things we can learn from these words of the Word of God.

1,014 posted on 12/12/2014 10:01:29 AM PST by Mrs. Don-o (God's grace has been revealed, and has made salvation possible for the whole human race. (Titus 2))
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To: Mrs. Don-o; Gamecock

Ok...for the last time....the greek is translated as favored with grace....not full of grace. It makes all the difference in the world.


1,021 posted on 12/12/2014 11:30:20 AM PST by ealgeone
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To: Mrs. Don-o

BTW Getting your information for the definition of Kecharitomene from the forum posts on fisheaters.com is rather risky as far as reliable isn’t it?


1,028 posted on 12/12/2014 12:00:51 PM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: Mrs. Don-o; ealgeone; Gamecock
>>I think God's choice of Koine Greek as the language in which to write the New Testament, was providential in itself. Such wonderful things we can learn from these words of the Word of God.<<

Yes it is! Unfortunately the Catholic Church did NOT get it's doctrine of Mary being "full of grace" from the Greek. It got it from the false translation of Jerome and the Latin Vulgate. The Latin Vulgate in Luke 1:28 uses "ave gratia plena" or "hail full of grace". That is NOT what the original Greek uses. The Catholic Church uses the FALSE translation of the Latin Vulgate NOT the original Koine Greek.

So your comment above, whether you realize it or not, is rather deceptive in that it would indicate that the Catholic Church took it's translation from the Koine Greek which IT DID NOT.

I repeat what I have said before. The Catholic Church uses deception for it's teachings and beliefs.

1,032 posted on 12/12/2014 12:28:18 PM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: Mrs. Don-o; ealgeone; Gamecock
I'll repeat my response.

The word Kecharitomene does NOT include any way to mean "full of grace". Your post #126 from 7/29/2013 includes a paragraph that is very deceptive. Here it is.

>>The unique feature of Kecharitomene is that it is in the Greek perfect tense, denoting that the state of grace began in past time, by a completed action (hence "fully" accomplished), whose results continue in the present. A suitable translation to denote all these features might be "Fully-Graced One."<<

One can agree with that paragraph right up until the last sentence. When I unloaded a 400 bushel load of corn into an empty 1000 bushel capacity bin I can say that the unloading occurred past tense. I can also say the unloading is fully accomplished. What I cannot presume from that is that the bin "might be" full of corn.

Neither can it be a "suitable translation" to denote Mary as "full of grace". The Catholic Church took that false attribute from an erroneous translation by Jerome in the Latin Vulgate. The Koine Greek does NOT include that definition.

1,054 posted on 12/12/2014 1:05:53 PM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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