I rely on the Hebrew and Greek as found in Strong’s, Thayer’s, etc
and so have no formal training of significance in Hebrew and Greek that would justify casting away traditionally approved Protestant, Evangelical, and Fundamentalist translations. It seems to me like cherry-picking. The KJV has And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.
It seems to me you have neither the education, experience, or authority to cast it away. If you always use a translation that has a different rendering (there are a few), what is it, for you are basing your reading on another's scholarship ?
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Scroll down to the Bible text references for "Matthew 16:19" and "Matthew 18:18" on this "biblehub.com" "Strong's" web page "http://biblehub.com/greek/strongs_1510.htm" (which uses "Strong's" to show their translation of the Greek word "estai" as used twice in both Matthew 16:19 and Matthew 18:18), and you will find they translate both sets of those occurrences in both of those Bible texts to "will be bound" and "will be loosed".
Similarly, their "Thayer's" entry here - "http://biblehub.com/thayers/1510.htm" (do a 'find' on "Matthew 16:19" on that page) for that Greek word translates it as "shall remain bound" and "shall remain loosed".
Here are the "biblehub.com" interlinear entries for those two texts: