Those who argue and insist we call Jesus by his correct name, Yeshua, are concerning themselves with trivial, non-essential matters. English speakers call him Jesus, with a "J" that sounds like "gee." Portuguese speakers call him Jesus, but with a "J" that sounds like "sjeh," and Spanish speakers call him Jesus, with a "J" that sounds like "hey." Which one of these pronunciations is the correct one? All of them, of course, in their own language.
The Bible doesn't give preeminence to one language (or translation) over another. We are not commanded to call upon the name of the Lord in Hebrew only. Acts 2:21 says, "But everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." God knows who calls upon his name, whether they do so in English, Portuguese, Spanish, or Hebrew. He is still the same Lord and Savior.
Not quite, although your point of using the lingua franca translations for the Bible and names seems proper for now. However, there is one pure language and it may very well be Hebrew, which is the language in which God wrote the commandments.
No it is not conjecture at all but a matter of well known history.
The Maccabee revolt said it all, Judah would rather die than speak anything but Hebrew. They went through the captivity speaking Hebrew, and even changed their captors wisemen’s language to Hebrew through the wisdom of Daniel and their priests, and then beat the Greeks at their own game.
After all that what else would stop them from keeping the language of the creator?
Why believe the foolish fables of unbelievers?
No book of the NT was written originally in any language but Hebrew. The abundant clumsy cultural errors in all of the Greek language epistles shows beyond a shadow of doubt that whoever did the Greek writings had no understanding of the apostles nor their Hebrew culture.
The desire to defeat God’s word makes people wish to believe almost any foolish fable. The clumsy errors of the Greek translations on every Hebrew feast or other cultural matter are there for all to see, to be understood by believers, and deliberately ignored by unbelievers.
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No more false statement has ever been made!
Rom.3
[1] What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
[2] Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
At the time that Paul made this clear statement, obviously no writings of the word had been made in any other language. .
Ah so true, the bunny trail of language and translations rears it's ugly head.
It doesn't really matter much except for obvious slanted versions of the Bible.
Study tools including all major translations, parallel Bible is nice, Strong's concordance for clarification of Hebrew and Greek text coupled with the one main ingredient:
Praying for the Holy Spirit to "speak" the Truth to the heart when reading scripture.
All this talk and accusations of Christians self "interpreting" the Bible is just a way of distracting from the message and pointing to the knowledge of men...and one woman...instead of Jesus, The Word.