Nope...The context is ALL...Jew, Gentile and Catholics...ALL means ALL...That includes Mary and her Mother...
Bible says NONE were/are sinless...And no where is there any indication of even a fable that Mary could have been sinless...
Does this all include Jesus or not? Also, I am unaware of any Catholic teaching on the Immaculate Conception of Mary's mother; only of Mary and Jesus. The context of the the passage in question is Jew vs. Greek. The entirety of the passage in Romans 3 is a dispute on the question of whether Jews or Greeks have an advantage.
Here are some quotes from writers in the early era connecting Mary to Eve.
Also, I am unaware of any Catholic teaching on the Immaculate Conception of Mary's mother; only of Mary and Jesus. Sorry; if Jesus (sinless) is going to take on human flesh, and ROME says that ONLY a SINLESS vessel can do that; then it stands to reason that if Mary (sinless is the claim) is going to have human flesh; then her mother must ALSO be sinless.
It's sinless ladies; all the way down.