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To: FourtySeven
And by the way, contrary to popular thought, the Jews didn't have a formal canon either until well after Christ died and rose again. So it's not like that "Scripture" existed either before the Church.

I would disagree with that on the basis of Jesus speaking when HE referred to Scripture, by the name *Scripture*.

HE obviously recognized OT writings as Scripture and called them as such.

So if JESUS called them Scripture, they're Scripture. You can argue otherwise all you want, but you'll be finding yourself at odds with Jesus.

404 posted on 06/26/2014 10:34:52 AM PDT by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith....)
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To: metmom

Like I said before if you followed that conversation, obviously Jesus and the Jews both considered some books to be Scripture, or else he wouldn’t have quoted from them (as the Jews wouldn’t have found his argumentation convincing).

But there’s a difference between quoting from one book (or passage) and conflating that to a whole Canon. Note, I said “formal Canon” as in a collection of books agreed upon and used by all Jews. I didn’t say the Jews didn’t have Scripture.


410 posted on 06/26/2014 11:28:13 AM PDT by FourtySeven (47)
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