>>>“Preterism is a view in Christian eschatology which holds that some or all of the biblical prophecies concerning the Last Days refer to events which took place in the first century after Christ’s birth, especially associated with the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. The term preterism comes from the Latin praeter, meaning past, since this view deems certain biblical prophecies as past, or already fulfilled."<<<
That is not the definition I am familiar with, nor is it the definition sasportas supplied in an earlier post. This is it:
"Wikipedia: “1) Interpret prophecies of the Bible as events which have already happened. 2) Daniel is interpreted as events that happened in the second century BC while Revelation is interpreted as events that happened in the first century AD. 3) Preterism holds that Ancient Israel finds its continuation or fulfillment in the Christian church at the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70. "
I don't certainly don't believe like that. It must be another new-age interpretation. You and your fellow new-agers need to get your stories straight.
BTW, part of your definition is accurate. The Latin word, praetor, means past. Therefore, the word preterist, in a biblical sense, means all prophecies have been fulfilled, exactly like the Wikipedia definition claims.
Therefore, I am no preterist. I, like other postmillennialists, believe in a future, general resurrection. Preterists don't believe that.
But keep sniping. Maybe you will distract everyone enough to keep them from realizing how weak your belief really is.
Philip
“That is not the definition I am familiar with, nor is it the definition sasportas supplied in an earlier post. This is it:
“Wikipedia:”
Ok, from your preferred source, wikipedia, here is the same basic information included in their entry:
“Partial preterism
Partial preterism holds that most eschatological prophecies, such as the destruction of Jerusalem, the Antichrists, the Great Tribulation, and the advent of the Day of the Lord as a “judgment-coming” of Christ, were fulfilled either in AD 70[30] or during the persecution of Christians under the Emperor Nero.[31][32] Some partial preterists identify “ Babylon the Great” (Revelation 17–18) with the pagan Roman Empire, though some, such as N.T. Wright and David Chilton, identify it with the city of Jerusalem.[30][33] Most interpretations identify Nero as the Beast,[34][35][36][37][38][39][40][a] while his mark is often interpreted as the stamped image of the emperor’s head on every coin of the Roman Empire: the stamp on the hand or in the mind of all, without which no one could buy or sell.[41] However, others believe the Book of Revelation was written after Nero committed suicide in AD 68, and identify the Beast with another emperor. The Catholic Encyclopedia has noted that Revelation was “written during the latter part of the reign of the Roman Emperor Domitian, probably in AD 95 or 96”.[42] Many Protestant scholars agree.[43][44] The Second coming and the resurrection of the dead, however, have not yet occurred in the partial preterist system.[45]”
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Preterism#Schools_of_preterist_thought
Can you stop playing games now and admit that you fit the definition of a partial preterist quite well? Or do you need a third definition to prove it to you?