1 Corinthians 14:27
If any man speak in an [unknown] tongue, [let it be] by two, or at the most [by] three, and [that] by course; and let one interpret.
Hi Elsie,
I admire your column ability.
However as you must know Latin was not an unknown tongue in the first to fifth centuries of the early Church since it was the ‘lingua franca’ (”The use of lingua francas may be almost as old as language itself. Certainly they have existed since antiquity. Latin and Greek were the lingua francas of the Roman empire” - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lingua_franca )
The use of Latin has continued to be the lingua franca of the Roman Catholic Church for at least 16 centuries since Pope Damascus I in 382 directed St Jerome to translate all the various translations of the Bible into one standard translation which was call the Latin Vulgate.
It was from the original Latin Vulgate that Luther translated his bible into the High and Low Germanic versions he disseminated.
Do you honestly think that Paul was referring to Latin in 1 Corinthians 14? Really? Latin was and unknown tongue to Paul??
PS I like your columns and rows immensely. It is good that you let your columns and rows light shine on the world and not hide it under a bushel.
AMDG