Jesus is the Lord. Jesus is God. Are you denying that?
If that is how you deciphered the lexicon of two different languages adding in LORD in the OT was a form of the tetragrammaton as the LXX interpreters used instead of Yahweh or YHWH. Then your conclusion is Elizabeth knowingly knew that she was proclaiming Mary “the mother of YHWH.”
Is every other use of Lord in the NT the same?