He made some good points. Then he said idiotic things like this:
” If that is so, then why do liturgical translations not use the Greek as their source-text for translation, rather than the Latin with its interpolation?”
Gee, maybe because our Western liturgical translations are from the Latin?
You ignored the sentences right before the one you picked out (see parts in quotes):
In other words, even if both sides understand and can accept the theological meaning of the other, the fact that “the Western church unilaterally altered the creed outside of the procedure of an ecumenical council” remains a sore point for the East, made all the more so by the fact that “recent popes have said the Greek original remains the authoritative text.” If that is so, then why do liturgical translations not use the Greek as their source-text for translation, rather than the Latin with its interpolation?”