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To: jimmyray

There you go asking more question but refusing to answer mine. What’s up with that? It’s a tactic that those who try to inject into scripture something that isn’t there or misappropriate texts use. If you can’t answer those questions just admit it. I won’t answer any more of yours until you do one or the other.


259 posted on 12/25/2013 2:45:54 PM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ)
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To: CynicalBear
QUOTE: There you go asking more question but refusing to answer mine. What’s up with that? It’s a tactic that those who try to inject into scripture something that isn’t there or misappropriate texts use. If you can’t answer those questions just admit it. I won’t answer any more of yours until you do one or the other.

Best I can tell, and I reread your post twice, I answered every question/assertion you made with scriptural evidence, and you reply they are somehow injected or misappropriated. That is the typical response of those who don't have any scriptural evidence for their assertions, and refuse to evaluate the scriptures that refute their assertions. I have answered everything with scripture, not opinion or theory.

Such is the pre-tribulational belief system: interpret ALL scripture based on the theory, rather than the plain reading of the text.

For example, to assert that John 6:35-40 refers only to the Jews, and not all believers, if disingenuous at best. There is absolutely nothing in the context that confirms your assertion, except the assumption of a pre-trib rapture, the belief in imminence, and the concept that the tribulation is for the Jews. Since those assumption are "true" in your mind, you must reinterpret John 6 (and Matthew 24 and 1 Cor 15 and 2 Thess 2) to mean something other than it plainly says.

When I took of the pre-trib glasses, I could plainly see what the scriptures say. I challenge you to do the same, if you can.

264 posted on 12/25/2013 4:10:56 PM PST by jimmyray
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