Best I can tell, and I reread your post twice, I answered every question/assertion you made with scriptural evidence, and you reply they are somehow injected or misappropriated. That is the typical response of those who don't have any scriptural evidence for their assertions, and refuse to evaluate the scriptures that refute their assertions. I have answered everything with scripture, not opinion or theory.
Such is the pre-tribulational belief system: interpret ALL scripture based on the theory, rather than the plain reading of the text.
For example, to assert that John 6:35-40 refers only to the Jews, and not all believers, if disingenuous at best. There is absolutely nothing in the context that confirms your assertion, except the assumption of a pre-trib rapture, the belief in imminence, and the concept that the tribulation is for the Jews. Since those assumption are "true" in your mind, you must reinterpret John 6 (and Matthew 24 and 1 Cor 15 and 2 Thess 2) to mean something other than it plainly says.
When I took of the pre-trib glasses, I could plainly see what the scriptures say. I challenge you to do the same, if you can.
From post 251.
Show me from scripture where that means the church and the church only is what Jesus was given if thats what you believe.
>>For example, to assert that John 6:35-40 refers only to the Jews, and not all believers, if disingenuous at best.<<
Who ever said it referred to Jews only? It was you who eliminated one of the aspects of all which he hath given me. Jesus was after all to be King of the Jews. That hasnt happened yet.
>>When I took of the pre-trib glasses,<<
I didnt come from pre trib through study. I came to the belief in pre trib through study. Your belief that there is not distinction between the Covenant with the Nation of Israel and the church denies the truth of prophecy. While there is not difference between Jew and Gentile in this age of grace or the church there most certainly is when it comes to the NATION of Israel and Gods covenant with them.