Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: vladimir998

“You have repeatedly failed to show this.”

More precisely, you have failed to agree. But no one has ever found a Catholic translation of the entire Bible prior to the DR a generation or two after Tyndale. We have Wycliffe’s, and Tyndale’s, and Coverdale’s, etc - but nothing else.

On the German side, there was Luther’s translation:

“Hans Lufft, the Bible printer in Wittenberg, printed over one hundred thousand copies between 1534 and 1574, which went on to be read by millions. Luther’s vernacular Bible was present in virtually every German-speaking Protestant’s home; and there can be no doubts regarding the Biblical knowledge attained by the German common masses. Luther even had large-print Bibles made for those who had failing eyesight. German humanist Johann Cochlaeus complained that

Luther’s New Testament was so much multiplied and spread by printers that even tailors and shoemakers, yea, even women and ignorant persons who had accepted this new Lutheran gospel, and could read a little German, studied it with the greatest avidity as the fountain of all truth. Some committed it to memory, and carried it about in their bosom. In a few months such people deemed themselves so learned that they were not ashamed to dispute about faith and the gospel not only with Catholic laymen, but even with priests and monks and doctors of divinity.””

Meanwhile, in England, Tyndale’s initial effort was followed by Coverdale’s Great Bible (aka The Chained Bible) (1539); the Geneva Bible (1560), and the Bishop’s Bible (1568). It wasn’t until 1610 that the Douay–Rheims Bible was finished, and it was of such poor caliber that it went out of print from 1635 until the mid 1700s, when the Challoner revision (”Challoner’s revisions borrowed heavily from the King James Version”) came out.

Hmmmm...it took 80 years for the Catholic Church to produce an English translation, and it took over 200 years for them to produce a readable version.

There isn’t any doubt about who wanted commoners to read the scriptures for themselves. PROTESTANTS did. The supposedly true church did not. Hmmm...any idea why?


279 posted on 11/12/2013 9:03:03 PM PST by Mr Rogers (Liberals are like locusts...)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 275 | View Replies ]


To: Mr Rogers

“More precisely, you have failed to agree.”

No, you have failed to show it.

“But no one has ever found a Catholic translation of the entire Bible prior to the DR a generation or two after Tyndale. We have Wycliffe’s, and Tyndale’s, and Coverdale’s, etc - but nothing else.”

That in no way means no one else sought permission to make a translation. You are doing what you have done before: claiming that one thing is another.

“On the German side, there was Luther’s translation:”

There were 14 German Bibles before his. As the quote I posted earlier attested - people already knew the Bible well in the vernacular long before Luther:

Miriam Usher Chrisman in Conflicting Visions of Reform: German Lay Propaganda Pamphlets, 1519-1530, page 4: “The German Bible, first printed in 1466, went through 14 editions before 1518 and was often listed in the inventories taken at the death of ordinary men and women.” She goes on to mention: “The overwhelming preponderance of scriptural quotation among the artisans confirms the existence of a strongly established Bible culture at the artisan level well before the Reformation.” (page 11) Now, granted, she was speaking of Germany and not England, but Wycliffe was in England and not Germany. Clearly people had access to Bibles.

“Meanwhile, in England, Tyndale’s initial effort was followed by Coverdale’s Great Bible (aka The Chained Bible) (1539); the Geneva Bible (1560), and the Bishop’s Bible (1568). It wasn’t until 1610 that the Douay–Rheims Bible was finished, and it was of such poor caliber that it went out of print from 1635 until the mid 1700s,”

False. It was not printed because English speaking Catholics were being crushed in Ireland and dying out in England or converting to the new heresy. Those who remained Catholic often bought and used Fulke’s edition to cover their use of a Catholic Bible.

“when the Challoner revision (”Challoner’s revisions borrowed heavily from the King James Version”) came out.”

And the KJV had borrowed from the Douay Rheims.

“Hmmmm...it took 80 years for the Catholic Church to produce an English translation, and it took over 200 years for them to produce a readable version.”

The Catholic Church did not produce the Douay Rheims. A small group of English Jesuits did. And the original Douay Rheims is readable. I have two copies. I have no trouble reading it.

“There isn’t any doubt about who wanted commoners to read the scriptures for themselves. PROTESTANTS did.”

For themselves? Do you really think God wants people to just make up new interpretations of the Bible? That’s what your suggesting even if that was not your intention because that is ALWAYS what happens.

“The supposedly true church did not. Hmmm...any idea why?”

The Catholic Church was founded by Christ to teach, preach and baptize. It succeeded in doing that in every place it went, and to every people it went, and in every century before anyone ever printed a single Bible. Romans 10:17


280 posted on 11/12/2013 9:20:26 PM PST by vladimir998
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 279 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson