“Most likely the Bibles in English they had were those left over from Wyclif, and that, only owned by the very rich.”
If only owned by them, that merely shows how expensive full Bibles were when hand made. Also, the Gasquet thesis about pre-Reformation Bibles cannot be ignored. You probably don’t even know what that is, right?
“Obviously, the demand was not caused because they had an abundance of Papist Bibles in English.”
There was always a demand and still is. I have dozens of Bibles - actually I am probably grossly underestimating the number. Demand for books - especially the Bible - is never satiated by a leap forward in technology to produce more massive quantities of them. What happens today is that many people who read the Bible have multiple copies of it - because it is now cheap to buy them (even $200 Bibles are comparatively cheap to Bibles 500 years ago).
“Though you are free to produce these Bibles, whether or not they were authorized, who authorized them, and how many were in circulation, at least an estimate.”
I have no idea what you’re trying to say there. It seems you posted a string of clauses with no particular point.
“There was always a demand and still is. I have dozens of Bibles - actually I am probably grossly underestimating the number.”
You can thank the Reformation for that, since, otherwise, the Church would have the authority to take those scriptures away, if they deemed you a danger to yourself or others, and then burn them in a bonfire like in the good old days.
“I have no idea what you’re trying to say there.”
I’m asking you to give evidence for your assertion, about Papist Bibles being freely available in England after 1408. How many there were, who had them, who authorized them, etc.