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To: boatbums
"You are talking about PHYSICAL, free of genetic defects, traits being passed down from mother to child. But, sin is a SPIRITUAL defect that has nothing to do with what Mary did or did not pass down to Jesus."

No, it's not quite so simple, since in human beings, the physical affects the spiritual: Jesus needed to be, in all ways, a perfect human.

Consider what Scripture says about this:

Scripture indicates, in the very first prophecy concerning the Messiah (Genesis 3:15-16) that there would be enmity between Satan and the Seed of the Woman. "Seed" is all about genetic inheritance and the transmission of human nature, as you know. Biblically it always refers to male semen, as well as offspring through the generations. In only one case does it refer to the "seed" of a woman. Very strange. Think about that.

The Messiah would have to be born from the "Seed of the Woman" who is NOT a slave of sin and Satan, but who is in "enmity" --- in opposition to --- sin and Satan. He would have to be born with a sinless human nature.

How does Original Sin affects us? This is how: because we receive from our parents a defective human nature. As you know, human nature is both physical and spiritual, because we are a composite of a physical body and a spiritual soul.

This defective human nature we receive, by natural transmission from our parents, results in a moral trait called "concupisence," a darkening of the intellect and weakness of the will, which strongly inclines us to fall into personal sin.

What we receive from our parents is not personal guilt for a personal moral wrong in itself --- since we have not committed any acts as zygotes, embryos or fetuses which could be called personal sins --- but a strong tendency to sin as a result of a defective and corrupted human nature.

Therefore the physical and genetic has a direct impact on the spiritual: our corrupted human nature strongly inclines us to think wrong, speak wrong, and do wrong.

Without Divine grace, we will always sin.

With this in mind, we can see that the physical and spiritual are intertwined in us, since we are composite beings; and Jesus needed to be spotless in the nature He got from His only human parent, His mother.

783 posted on 08/14/2013 6:11:39 AM PDT by Mrs. Don-o ("If they refuse to listen even to the Church, treat them as you would a pagan or a tax collector.")
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To: Mrs. Don-o
No, it's not quite so simple, since in human beings, the physical affects the spiritual: Jesus needed to be, in all ways, a perfect human.

OH?

If HE was born that way; HE didn't STAY that way 8 days after birth!

790 posted on 08/14/2013 8:22:50 AM PDT by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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To: Mrs. Don-o
With respect, I disagree with your reasoning and conclusions concerning the necessity of Jesus' mother, Mary, having to be a "perfect" human being - physically and spiritually. Of the many reasons why I disagree, the one that should stand out is the simple truth that Mary would have had to get her "perfection" from imperfect parents and, if this was so, there would be no reason why Jesus could not have also gotten his perfect humanity from an imperfect parent. The argument breaks down.

The prophecy about the Messiah coming from the "seed" of the woman has to do with Jesus' virgin birth and NOT about Mary needing to be perfect in order to bequeath perfection on her virgin-born son. In Hebrews, the "a body you have prepared for me" is not referring to Mary's body, but to that of the incarnate God. From Gill's Exposition of the Bible:

    But a body hast thou prepared me; or "fitted for me"; a real natural body, which stands for the whole human nature; and is carefully expressed, to show that the human nature is not a person. This was prepared, in the book of God's purposes and decrees, and in the council and covenant of grace; and was curiously formed by the Holy Ghost in time, for the second Person, the Son of God, to clothe himself with, as the Syriac version renders it, "thou hast clothed me with a body"; and that he might dwell in, and in it do the will of God, and perform the work of man's redemption: in Psalm 40:6 it is, "mine ears thou hast opened"; digged or bored, the ear being put for the whole body; for if he had not had a body prepared, he could not have had ears opened: besides; the phrase is expressive of Christ's assuming the form of a servant, which was done by his being found in fashion as a man, Philippians 2:7 and of his being a voluntary servant, and of his cheerful obedience as such, the opening, or boring of the ear, was a sign, Exodus 21:5. And thus by having a true body prepared for him, and a willing mind to offer it up, he became fit for sacrifice.

Again, I respect your opinion, but I disagree with it as well as the reasonings the Roman Catholic Church has used to rationalize the veneration of Mary in attributing to her a sinlessness she did not receive nor did she need to receive. She was redeemed from her sins in the same way we all are - through faith in the Redeemer, Jesus Christ. Have a blessed day.

810 posted on 08/14/2013 2:55:21 PM PDT by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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To: Mrs. Don-o; boatbums

>> “Jesus needed to be, in all ways, a perfect human.” <<

.
NO, no, no!

Yeshua needed to be a sinless man.

His temptation had to be real; there had to be the possibility that he could fail, or the temptation would have been nothing but theater, much like a catholic mass.


821 posted on 08/14/2013 6:34:47 PM PDT by editor-surveyor (Freepers: Not as smart as I'd hoped they'd be)
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