[boatbums]

Is it my use of the word "Bible" that perplexes you? Would the term "Holy Scripture" make better sense? I've been reading an interesting document about the Council of Nicea (http://www.christian-history.org/council-of-nicea.html#sthash.PzvUIHuG.dpbs). The attendees quoted from some of the earliest church fathers (i.e., Irenaeus, Justin Martyr, Athenagoras, Origen and Tertulian) as they quoted from the books that make up the Bible such as the Gospel according to Matthew, specfically Matthew 28:19 (the baptismal formula) and even the Old Testament books such as Proverbs 8:22 in proving the doctrine of the Trinity. If your question was indeed serious, then the Scriptures these men utilized were the Greek version copies, since the council was conducted with Greek speakers, primarily. These Scriptures are the EXACT same ones that were used to make many of the English translations we have today in our Bibles.

I noticed that you ask a lot of leading questions (an attorney?) but seldom answer those asked of you. Cynical Bear asked where you thought the Council of Nicea got the idea about the Trinity - no answer.

I asked you much earlier if I needed to repost the link that shows Martin Luther's German translation of the Bible excluded NONE of the books Catholics consider "Scripture". Since you persist in stating Luther DID remove books, I asked if you needed me to resend you that link so that you won't keep making that same error - no answer.

I hope you understand why one would think this forum appears to be a game of some sort to some. It is not for me. I know souls may be at stake - that's how serious I see it.

[JCBreckenridge]

“These Scriptures are the EXACT same ones that were used to make many of the English translations we have today in our Bibles.”

Depends entirely on which bible and which edition you are talking about. The ones primarily used by Protestants do not use the Greek documents available to the Church fathers in the time of Nicaea. They tend to use manuscripts dating anywhere from 7 to 9 centuries after.

The reason I ask the question is this. We do not at present possess the texts that they would have consulted in this period of time, 320 AD. We cannot say with definitive proof that the scriptures extant, Greek or otherwise are the same as the ones used by the Council.

Which raises the question. If, in fact, it is true that our oldest scriptural manuscripts do not go back that far - should we really be relying on scripture or the Councils to determine what the Apostles believed?

This is my point - authority comes from the Apostles themselves, not from Scripture to the Apostles. The bishops at Nicaea were and are the successors of the Apostles and thus, have the authority to interpret sacred scripture.

Which raises a question - where does the authority to determine doctrine come from - scripture or the magisterium?

“Cynical Bear asked where you thought the Council of Nicea got the idea about the Trinity”

Cynical bear needs to answer some questions if he wants answers to his. He has never answered any of my questions, so I do not feel compelled to answer his.

What I notice is that protestants don’t answer questions and then get pouty when their questions are not answered.

In short - want an answer, answer my questions too.