On the contrary, your statement /One thing that is absolutely certain at this point is that the original language of the gospels was Hebrew, not Greek. is the one with no evidence
Read the archaeological evidence for this and the historical evidence
The language of the people of Palestine shifted from Hebrew to Aramaic sometime between 721-500 B.C. Therefore, we know that Jesus, his disciples and contemporaries spoke and wrote in Aramaic. The message of Christianity spread throughout Palestine, Syria and Mesopotamia in this Semitic tongue.
Use of the Aramaic language had become common by the period of the Chaldean Empire (626-539 B.C.). It became the official language of the Imperial government in Mesopotamia and enjoyed general use until the spread of Greek (331 B.C.). Although Greek had spread throughout these Eastern lands, Aramaic remained dominant and the linqua franca of the Semitic peoples. This continued to be so until Aramaic was superseded by a sister Semitic tongue, Arabic, about the 13th century A.D. to the 14th century A.D., when Arabic supplanted Aramaic after the Arab conquest in the 7th Century. However, the Christians of Mesopotamia (Iraq), Iran, Syria, Turkey and Lebanon kept the Aramaic language alive domestically, scholastically and liturgically. In spite of the pressure of the ruling Arabs to speak Arabic, Aramaic is still spoken today in its many dialects, especially among the Chaldeans and Assyrians.
The proof is in the language of the ancient Christians in Israel, Syria, Lebanon and Chaldea -- what is the theological language? Not Hebrew but Aramaic
in the Greek New testamtne the words used are mostly Aramaic, not Hebrew
example: Matthew 27:46 eli eli lema sabachthani is ARAMAIC, not Hebrew as in Psalm 22:1 ‘eli ‘eli lama ‘azavtani
While it’s true the NT is almost certain not to have been written originally in Hebrew...
You might want to update your scholarship:
The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, edit. F.L. Cross, first edition (Oxford, 1958), 3rd edition (Oxford 1997)
...once said in 1958 in its first edition, Hebrew “ceased to be a spoken language around the fourth century BC”, now says in 1997 in its third edition, Hebrew “continued to be used as a spoken and written language in the New Testament period”.
Still spreading this myth. This will certainly appear in the cathecism someday under the tab "Sacred Tradition."
You’re deluded.
The evidence is textual, and contained in the corrupted Greek copies of the originally Hebrew gospels, and is absolutely undeniable, as I have already pointed out to you.
Cling to your fantasy, since it shores up the lies that you choose to believe. I enjoy the truth that is finally escaping through the rusty armor of Mystery Babylon.