Romans 3:23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
Mary was “under the law” so was a sinful person as “all” have sinned.
Galatians 4:4-5, "But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons."
>> You don't believe that EVERYTHING that ever happened in Biblical times was put into the Bible somewhwere, do you?<<
I believe that we are told all we need to know. Making stuff up or adding to Christ’s words were rather looked down on.
>> A contradiction to the Assumption would be a Bible text that explicitly stated that the Assumption did NOT happen.<<
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years. Now you’re trying to say that there was one other before the “first resurrection”.
>> Please consider all these things prayerfully. <<
No disrespect but what makes you think I haven’t? The nonsense of “if scripture doesn’t say it didn’t happen then we can say it did” is exactly what the Mormons, Muslims and other cults claim. The special revelation will have dire consequences.
Mary was 'under the law' so was a sinful person as 'all' have sinned.
Galatians 4:4-5, 'But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.'"
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The term "under the law" does NOT refer to whether a person has sinned or not. It refers to those born under Judaism and the Mosaic Law, which Jesus Christ freed all of us from. See these other texts from Paul which clearly illumine that point:
Romans 7:6- - - - - - - - - - - - - -But now we are discharged from the law, dead to that which held us captive, so that we serve not under the old written code but in the new life of the Spirit.
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1 Corinthians 9:20
To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews; to those under the law I became as one under the law—though not being myself under the law—that I might win those under the law.
Now, when it says "all have sinned", do you think that includes Jesus, or that Paul by mistake made a horrendous and embarrassing blunder in his writing, or do you think that Paul assumed his readers were smart enough and discerning enough so that he did not need to add, "...except for..."?
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The nonsense of “if scripture doesn’t say it didn’t happen then we can say it did” is exactly what the Mormons, Muslims and other cults claim.
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If I, or FReepers "Joe-Schmoo" or "Suzy-Snow" claim they are the FReeper "CynicalBear", then that IS nonsense, but if FReeper "CynicalBear" claims to be FReeper "CynicalBear", that is simply the truth.
By the way, the Muslims and the Mormons and the other cults did NOT tell you that those two "Books" of the Bible you quoted from (Romans and Galatians) were part of the Bible, and the Bible itself did NOT tell you that those two "Books" were part of the Bible -- the Catholic Church told you that those two "Books", "Romans" and "Galatians" were part of the Bible. I think it is good that you at least listen to the Holy-Spirit-guided declaration by the Catholic Church on that specific matter, and do not carelessly say, "Oh, that was just nonsense when the Catholic Church officially declared what writings belong in the New Testament".
(I have to go back to work now, but I'll try to check in again when I get a chance. Take care.)