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To: Cronos
Sorry but I'll stick with the plain meaning of the text rather than some explanation as to why the passage doesn't really say what it says.

Okay, I'll agree that Jesus followed the Law. In His role as the true Passover Lamb, He had to be without flaw with respect to God's Law. Where does Scripture say or imply that Jesus was obligated to follow cultural rules? Man-made cultural rules and God's Law are not always the same thing as Jesus Himself pointed out in Matthew 15 where He condemned those who declared property as a gift to God (a cultural practice) in order to avoid their obligation to honor their parents (God's Commandment).

87 posted on 09/23/2012 1:00:46 PM PDT by CommerceComet (Obama vs. Romney - clear evidence that our nation has been judged by God and found wanting.)
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To: CommerceComet
Actually, you (and I when I read it in English or another modern language) are using someone else's explanation (i.e. interpretation) of the text.

As I pointed out above, the writers used the word "until" in the sense of "did not" -- as seen in 2 Samuel 6:23

And Jesus would not be shown to flout the Jewish laws of the day to hand over His mother to a non-family member.

88 posted on 09/24/2012 4:53:49 AM PDT by Cronos (**Marriage is about commitment, cohabitation is about convenience.**)
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