[Cronos]

I would wonder why if Christ was married that from the cross He did not make an allowance for someone to take care of His wife and/or family, after all he did that for His mother and His mother had other sons and likely daughters to take care of her.

Because Christ didn't have any children, nor any siblings from Mary.

In a Semitic society then as now, the care of the mother is with her sons. One does not entrust one's mother to the care of someone who is not her son or daughter. It is not done.

[CommerceComet]

Because Christ didn't have any children, nor any siblings from Mary.

Matthew 1:25 implies that Joseph and Mary had normal sexual relations after the birth of Jesus. Those sexual relations likely resulted in children. The later references in Scripture logically refer to the brothers and sisters of Jesus are most likely the products of those sexual relations. Bearing other children in natural, lawful sexual relations with her husband, doesn't diminish the holiness of Mary. IMO the doctrine of the Perpetual Virginity of Mary is based on poor hermeneutics.

In a Semitic society then as now, the care of the mother is with her sons. One does not entrust one's mother to the care of someone who is not her son or daughter. It is not done.

Since when is the Lord of All restricted by man-made cultural restraints? I don't claim to know Jesus' motivation for elevating John to the position of son above his other half-brothers who were most likely the sons of Mary but He did.