That is a question that ignores the nature of Scripture and violates proper English grammar. It is an errant question and the one who posed it is therefore fallible.
Scripture by definition is inerrant, a state of being completely without error. Fallibility or infallibility describes actions relative to the ability to err. To refer to Scripture as fallible or infallible assigns to the ability to act, which it does not have.
yes. No wonder these folks make up their own interpretations every day of the Bible, books and even posts (no, wait scratch the bit about books or the Bible, they just read and quote excerpts)