Just please know this is not a personal attack on anyone. Metmom, you and I have discussed these things before and you know what my feelings are regarding this, and why. I've just never discussed them openly with others.
Let me get my thoughts together along with Scripture, and I'll be back. I just wanted to let you all know that I've not shirked my responsibility to respond. God Bless :)
When were they written by Paul? 1 Cor. was written about 59AD. 2 Cor. was written about 60AD. BOTH were written BEFORE the close of the Acts period. Specifically, Acts 28, when Israel was blinded and set aside. (Galatians was also written during this time, 58AD, as were 1 and 2 Thess., both in 54 AD., and Romans, 60AD). Why is this important? Because God was still dealing with Israel as a nation, until He blinds her and sets her aside, they become "lo Ammi", "not my people", at the close of Acts. Acts 28:25-29.
As long as He was dealing with Israel, miracles, signs, and wonders abounded. Even among Gentile members of the body of Christ. Why? "Ye men of ISRAEL, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man APPROVED OF GOD AMONG YOU BY MIRACLES AND WONDERS AND SIGNS, which God did by Him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know." Acts 2:22.
This is why Paul writes to the Romans that "Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision..to CONFIRM the promises made unto the fathers" Rom. 15:8.
All written before Israel is finally set aside.
"The Jews REQUIRE a SIGN" 1 Cor. 1:22. Of course there would be miracles, signs, and wonders BEFORE Israel is blinded. Even among the Gentiles in the body of Christ.
The question is, did they continue, or did they stop after the close of the Book of Acts? If so, when, and why?
take your time.