A. Her husbandAnd in the context of the first chapter of Luke where "Lord" had already been used by the writer to refer to the Lord God of Israel before Elizabeth's salutation of Mary and where "Lord" was subsequently used by both Mary and Zechariah to refer to the Lord God of Israel, could the answer to the question above conceivably anything other than C? If so, how, without doing violence to the plain language used by Elizabeth? Or was the writer just a clutz who didn't really think about what he was writing and how it could appear to support the claim made by another gospel writer that the boy would be called Immanuel, meaning "God with us"?
B. King Herod
C. Yahweh, the Lord God of Israel, creator of heaven and earth.
I think CB’s position is reduced to it doesn’t matter whether Elizabeth, or Matthew, Mark, Luke and John said Mary is Jesus’ mother. Only the red letter scripture counts.
Teacher, master, or any of the other translations of Lord. Elohim is a judge and one of the designations of Gods actions but was also used for earthly judges.