The fact that Mary DIED is proof enough that she was subject to the FULL penalty of sin. Rom. 6:23, Gen. 2:17, 3:19.
Which leads to the next point. If the Virgin Mary had an inherited sin nature (which she most certainly did), she could not bring forth a pure offspring.
"The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of THE HIGHEST, shall overshadow thee; therefore also that 'Holy Thing' which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God." Luke 1:35.
I think this is pretty clear that the embryo that was deposited in the womb of the Virgin Mary by the Holy Ghost contained no taint of sin, and that Mary's womb was SIMPLY THE VEHICLE FOR THE FORMATION OF THE HUMAN BODY OF CHRIST. Into which the "Spirit of Christ" entered AT BIRTH and THUS WAS FORMED THE GOD-MAN.
Since the sin nature comes through the father, that is the case.
But if someone believes that sin comes through the woman, then there’s problems.
My question is, if Jesus Himself could not inhabit a sinful womb because He was pure and sinless, then how could Mary inhabit a sinful womb (her mother’s) and be immaculately conceived and remain pure and sinless? For Mary to be pure wouldn’t her mother then have needed to be pure and sinless?
And if God could do this for Mary, that is-having her conceived without sin in the normal sinful human body of her mother’s, then why couldn’t He have done it for Jesus with Mary being the normal sinful human being?
Whatever Catholics claim God did for Mary to preserve her free from the stain of sin from her mother, He could have done for Jesus to preserve Him from the stain of sin from Mary.
They love to quote james so much ..
James 2:10 And whosoever shall keep the whole law, but offend in one point, is become guilty of all.
1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
That is the problem of doctrine with no sure foundational truth.. After a while their doctrine starts to contradict itself
A counter argument to this has been offered at least once on this thread. I saw no answer to it.
The fact that Mary DIED is proof enough that she was subject to the FULL penalty of sin. Rom. 6:23, Gen. 2:17, 3:19.
Just FYI the Catholic Church is silent on whether or not she died.
Which leads to the next point. If the Virgin Mary had an inherited sin nature (which she most certainly did), she could not bring forth a pure offspring.You disagree then with metmom who thinks the "sin nature" (not a term I am familiar with -- is it in the Bible?) only passes from the man?
But I take it you are saying that God made the embryo, that Jesus is not really descended from anyone through Mary, and that the "substance" she provided was not genetic but nutritive?
Again,no gotchas. This is a line of thought unfamiliar to me.
I think this is pretty clear that the embryo that was deposited in the womb of the Virgin Mary by the Holy Ghost contained no taint of sin, and that Mary's womb was SIMPLY THE VEHICLE FOR THE FORMATION OF THE HUMAN BODY OF CHRIST. Into which the "Spirit of Christ" entered AT BIRTH and THUS WAS FORMED THE GOD-MAN.
So John erred when he leaped in Elizabeth's womb because it wasn't his Lord yet, just the body which would later be adopted by investment of the Divine nature at parturition?