[metmom]

Since the sin nature comes through the father, that is the case.

But if someone believes that sin comes through the woman, then there’s problems.

My question is, if Jesus Himself could not inhabit a sinful womb because He was pure and sinless, then how could Mary inhabit a sinful womb (her mother’s) and be immaculately conceived and remain pure and sinless? For Mary to be pure wouldn’t her mother then have needed to be pure and sinless?

And if God could do this for Mary, that is-having her conceived without sin in the normal sinful human body of her mother’s, then why couldn’t He have done it for Jesus with Mary being the normal sinful human being?

Whatever Catholics claim God did for Mary to preserve her free from the stain of sin from her mother, He could have done for Jesus to preserve Him from the stain of sin from Mary.

[Mad Dawg]

Since the sin nature comes through the father, that is the case. I've heard this before and never understood it. Are you saying the "sin nature" is genetic or that there is some biological aspect to it? No gotchas, not yet. I want to understand the opinion.

[daniel1212]

God brought forth His pure word thru holy but fallen vessels, and there is no necessity for a sinless vessel for the word made flesh.

Though believing He did use one is not a salvific issue by itself, it does militate against the normative use of “all,” as well as the principle that notable exceptions about important characters are made known, from having more than 10 toes to being sinless, and thus Christ is at least thrice stated to be the latter. (2Cor. 5:21; 1Pt. 3:22; 1Jn. 3:5; cf. Jn. 8:46; Heb. 7:26)

[count-your-change]

Logic and reasonableness not permitted!