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To: Former Fetus; narses
The actual marriage involved the bridegroom taking the bride home, which Joseph did AFTER Mary was with child

So, did Joseph take his "marital rights" then?

2,496 posted on 06/26/2011 10:12:47 PM PDT by Cronos ( W Szczebrzeszynie chrzaszcz brzmi w trzcinie I Szczebrzeszyn z tego slynie.)
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To: Cronos
Trying to be a smart alec? I think it has been said several dozen times in this thread that Joseph did not "take his marital rights" until after the birth of Jesus(Matt. 1:25). At the same time, the gospels mention several times the brothers and sisters of Jesus, which would "strongly suggest" that Joseph had relations with Mary after the birth of Jesus. And no, don't give me that "it's not brothers or sisters but close kin" line. There are different words in Greek to refer to both, and the common use of those words in Scripture indicates that they were literal brothers and sisters.

As a former Catholic, brought up in Catholic private school, national catequism champion... I don't understand why does it matter so much to y'all whether Joseph and Mary had relations after the birth of Jesus or not! What does that add or substract to your salvation? Salvation comes by grace, by faith in what Jesus did for us at the cross. All this business of Mary conceived sinless (Paul must not have known that, when he wrote "we all have sinned") and remaining ever virgin has nothing to do with our salvation but a lot to do with remnants of Babylonian misticism!

2,497 posted on 06/27/2011 11:56:08 AM PDT by Former Fetus
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