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To: Cronos
“Firstly, in the psalms, it clearly says that the judges may think of themselves as gods but they die like men”

Here is the one speaking in Psalm 82:

“God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.”

What those judges think of themselves isn't mentioned, in fact, it would be irrelevant as they termed “gods”.

Even Moses was called a god. (Ex.4:16)

“John never said “a god”, he said “the Word (Jesus) was God”, not “a” god”

John did not write in English. He wrote in Greek. Greek is not English. It is different. It uses different rules of grammar. I've explained three of those rules/practices that are pertinent to John 1:1.
If you missed them I can will repeat them. Shall I do so?

“Now, since we believe in ONE God, hence Jesus Christ was/is God.”

Then translating into English as nearly as possible what John wrote in Greek would not change that and there is thus no reason to not have a translation most accurate and faithful to the words and meaning of John as possible.

“John never said “a god”, he said “the Word (Jesus) was God”, not “a” god”

You referred to Psalm 82 at the beginning of your comment, saying:
“Firstly, in the psalms, it clearly says that the judges may think of themselves as gods but they die like men”

I'm sure you agree Jesus quoted that Psalm correctly, and in writing John recorded Jesus’ words as, “I said, ‘Gods (with a capital letter in Greek)) you are’.

How could these judges be Gods? They couldn't and so translators use the proper English equivalent, “gods” for the Greek “Gods” and rearrange the words accordingly.

313 posted on 05/24/2011 8:28:59 AM PDT by count-your-change (You don't have be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
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To: count-your-change; Cronos
Here is the one speaking in Psalm 82: “God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.”

The word used for God and gods is the same elohiym, meaning the judges. What differentiates the first elohiym (the Judge, God) from the judges are the accent marks. It is God who is called the Judge (in the royal plural) who is judging the judges, or rulers, not gods in the divine sense.

A similar difference is seen in the derivative of the word 'adown meaning master. In the special plural, marked by a short accent, it stands for the Lord God (Adonai), but in the regular plural adonai it stands for masters. Thus, in Ps 110.1 the second lord in the English translation is 'adown, which is never used for God (because it is in singular).

All divine names in Hebrew are in plural (to denote the innumerable majesties of God), carefully distinguished form secular titles derived form the same root. For that reason Ps 110.1 is not about Jesus as the Church insists.

None of these distinctions are distinguished in the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible. We must be cautions when using the English translations where words 'god' appears.

The KJV, in this case translates not from Hebrew but from LXX "Ὁ θεὸς ἔστη ἐν συναγωγῇ θεῶν..." [Ps 81:1 in the Greek OT]... "God is in the congregation [synagogue] of the gods [i.e. mighty ones)..." Thus, the word "gods" is of the Greek origin and not in the original Hebrew.

318 posted on 05/24/2011 9:54:09 AM PDT by kosta50
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To: count-your-change; Cronos
How could these judges be Gods? They couldn't and so translators use the proper English equivalent, “gods” for the Greek “Gods” and rearrange the words accordingly.

Guy, the oldest Greek manuscripts did not have lower case letters, so everything was CAPITALIZED

320 posted on 05/24/2011 10:05:09 AM PDT by kosta50
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