To: Cronos
According to the RCC, every time mass is performed, Christ is 'made flesh and blood' for the receiver to accept. That is a simple 'truth' of the RCC teaching.
Christ is risen. He is sitting at the right hand of the Father. He has no blood. It was poured out at Calvary and given to the Father as our sin offering. He has a glorified body now. As we will one day. That is a simple truth of God's Holy Word.
No one can know Christ after the flesh now. No one can 'turn' a wafer into His flesh nor especially wine into His blood.
We, as believers, groan for our glorified bodies. We know other believers also do the same. Except for those who desire to daily feast on knowing Christ after the flesh. And the blood. That is the context, Cronos. We are spiritually seated in heavenly places in Christ, as believers, right now, even though we are still on this earth in these corruptible bodies. The flesh profits nothing.
795 posted on
02/07/2011 8:06:29 AM PST by
smvoice
(Defending the Indefensible: The Pride of a Pawn.)
To: smvoice
Who told you that? have you read the
Catechism? This is what it says
In the epiclesis, the Church asks the Father to send his Holy Spirit (or the power of his blessing180) on the bread and wine, so that by his power they may become the body and blood of Jesus Christ and so that those who take part in the Eucharist may be one body and one spirit (some liturgical traditions put the epiclesis after the anamnesis).
799 posted on
02/07/2011 8:12:15 AM PST by
Cronos
To: smvoice
Your interpretation that Jesus had no blood is a flawed understanding of "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor 15:50). When Jesus appeared to his disciples after his Resurrection, he said to them, "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Luke 24:39).
If you take 1 Cor 15:50, then you have to conclude that Jesus has no flesh either in heaven -->is that what you believe? also Luke 24:39 shows clearly that Jesus had flesh and bones, hence 1 Corinthians 15:50 does NOT mean what you think in context of Jesus -- Paul means that we cannot enter the kingdom of heaven as just humans but have to be transformed by Christ.
Just because Luke 24:39 doesn't mention blood, doesn't mean that you can make a jumping assumption
800 posted on
02/07/2011 8:16:30 AM PST by
Cronos
To: smvoice
808 posted on
02/07/2011 9:15:18 AM PST by
Iscool
(I don't understand all that I know...)
To: smvoice
Who told you that? have you read the
Catechism? This is what it says
In the epiclesis, the Church asks the Father to send his Holy Spirit (or the power of his blessing180) on the bread and wine, so that by his power they may become the body and blood of Jesus Christ and so that those who take part in the Eucharist may be one body and one spirit (some liturgical traditions put the epiclesis after the anamnesis).
To: smvoice
Your interpretation that Jesus had no blood is a flawed understanding of "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor 15:50). When Jesus appeared to his disciples after his Resurrection, he said to them, "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Luke 24:39).
If you take 1 Cor 15:50, then you have to conclude that Jesus has no flesh either in heaven -->is that what you believe? also Luke 24:39 shows clearly that Jesus had flesh and bones, hence 1 Corinthians 15:50 does NOT mean what you think in context of Jesus -- Paul means that we cannot enter the kingdom of heaven as just humans but have to be transformed by Christ.
Just because Luke 24:39 doesn't mention blood, doesn't mean that you can make a jumping assumption
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson