I suspect that a logical fallacy is right around the corner; namely, Jesus already HAD a body when He said this.
Are we supposed to 'believe' that the loaf(?) of bread He was holding was part of His body, too?
“logical fallacy” how did a blind man get healed, how was lazarus raised from the dead, how were the loaves and fishes multiplied, how was Jesus conceived without a woman knowing a man? to the athiest, these are all logical fallacies. except to the Christian.
let me quote from St Augustine, commenting on the psalms:
“And He was carried in His own Hands. But, brethern, how is it possible for a man to do this? Who can understand it? Who is it that is carried in his own hands? A man can be carried in the hands of another, but no one can be carried in his own hands. How this should be literally understood of David we can not discover, but we can discover how it was meant of Christ. For Christ was carried in His own Hands,when referring to His own Body, He said: ‘This is My Body”. For He carried that Body in His Hands.”
you can have your logic, i will take the Catholic Faith!
since you are a fan of logic, let me ask a question. how is it logical in 1 Corinthians 11:27-29, that someone who takes the Lord’s Supper unworthily, is guilty of profaning the Body and Blood of the Lord, if the Lord’s Body and Blood are not present?
another logical question: If Hebrews 6:18 is correct and God can’t lie and Jesus is God, why didn’t Jesus say “This represents My Body” rather than “This is My Body” if that is what He meant?