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To: fortheDeclaration
The REAL difference in the use of the terms is this, 'Servant differs from slave, as the servant's subjection to a master is voluntary, the slaves is not. Every slave is a servant, but every servant is not a slave' (Webster, 1828)

So, the difference is the WILL, which is free and can choose to serve or not.

Webster is expressing the same broad meaning of the word "servant" as I did in my last post, namely: "Servant" can refer to either chattel or "voluntary" servants. The word "slave" ONLY refers to chattle and NOT voluntary servants.

In Greek, "diakonos" is a word that could refer to either condition, just like the English word "Servant". However the point you seem to be absolutely refusing to acknowledge is that the Greek word "doulos" means "slave".

To Paraphrase Mr Webster: "The REAL difference in the use of terms is this, 'Diakonos differs from doulos, as the diakonos' subjection to a master is voluntary, the doulos' is not. Every doulos is a diakonos, but every diakonos is not a doulos'

Ironically, you can read a few lines down in that 1928 Websters and you'll see the following:

3. In Scripture, a slave; a bondman

33 posted on 11/09/2010 7:15:33 AM PST by OHelix
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To: OHelix
[The REAL difference in the use of the terms is this, 'Servant differs from slave, as the servant's subjection to a master is voluntary, the slaves is not. Every slave is a servant, but every servant is not a slave' (Webster, 1828) So, the difference is the WILL, which is free and can choose to serve or not.]

Webster is expressing the same broad meaning of the word "servant" as I did in my last post, namely: "Servant" can refer to either chattel or "voluntary" servants. The word "slave" ONLY refers to chattle and NOT voluntary servants. In Greek, "diakonos" is a word that could refer to either condition, just like the English word "Servant". However the point you seem to be absolutely refusing to acknowledge is that the Greek word "doulos" means "slave".

When used in relationship to a believer it doesn't.

To Paraphrase Mr Webster: "The REAL difference in the use of terms is this, 'Diakonos differs from doulos, as the diakonos' subjection to a master is voluntary, the doulos' is not. Every doulos is a diakonos, but every diakonos is not a doulos'

No, because the word doulos can also mean 'servant', as correctly translated in the KJB.

Ironically, you can read a few lines down in that 1928 Websters and you'll see the following: 3. In Scripture, a slave; a bondman

Webster's also has, ' A person who voluntarily serves another or acts as his minister'(#5)

Now, when 'doulos' shows up in relationship to Christ (Phil.2:7) none of the modern versions use the word 'slave', and use either 'servant' or 'bond-servant'

When 'doulos' shows up in Rev. 15:3, 'Moses, the servant of God' none of the modern translations translate the word as 'slave'.

The Gr. word 'doulos' means exactly what it is translated into English in the KJB, servant, with the broad connotation of willing service, it is never translated as 'slave' in the KJB, nor should it be.

34 posted on 11/09/2010 12:30:46 PM PST by fortheDeclaration (When the wicked beareth rule, the people mourn (Pr.29:2))
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