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I am not sure what exactly is the point you are trying to make.

I'm only trying to show that Jesus was quoting from the Hebrew scroll of Isaiah in Hebrew. You seemed to say he was reading from the Targum in Aramaic, so I showed the point that if the Targum is read in the Synagogues it is AFTER the verse(s) is read in Hebrew. 'kay?

2,828 posted on 11/21/2010 3:41:31 PM PST by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to him.)

I'm only trying to show that Jesus was quoting from the Hebrew scroll of Isaiah in Hebrew. You seemed to say he was reading from the Targum in Aramaic, so I showed the point that if the Targum is read in the Synagogues it is AFTER the verse(s) is read in Hebrew. 'kay?

Okay. It's just that the Jews did not understand Hebrew, which is why the verse had to be translated/explained in Aramaic. So whether it was first read in Hebrew or Chinese is irrelevant. It still had to be re-read and/or explained in Aramaic.