[kosta50]

I'm only trying to show that Jesus was quoting from the Hebrew scroll of Isaiah in Hebrew. You seemed to say he was reading from the Targum in Aramaic, so I showed the point that if the Targum is read in the Synagogues it is AFTER the verse(s) is read in Hebrew. 'kay?

Okay. It's just that the Jews did not understand Hebrew, which is why the verse had to be translated/explained in Aramaic. So whether it was first read in Hebrew or Chinese is irrelevant. It still had to be re-read and/or explained in Aramaic.

[boatbums]

It's just that the Jews did not understand Hebrew, which is why the verse had to be translated/explained in Aramaic. So whether it was first read in Hebrew or Chinese is irrelevant. It still had to be re-read and/or explained in Aramaic.

Were we talking about the Old Testament books being in HEBREW or weren't we? That was the whole reason why I even brought the subject up. It is a FACT that the Jews had the scrolls in their synagogues and the temple and they were in the Hebrew language not Aramaic or Greek. Certainly the Targums could have been used but they HAD the scriptures in the original language. I also firmly believe that, although some of the Jews may not have spoken Hebrew the learned and religious ones certainly were fluent in it. Paul included.