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To: roamer_1

Christ died for our sins. Did He himself have / inherit original sin?


6,902 posted on 08/05/2010 5:54:20 AM PDT by Cronos (Omnia mutantur, nihil interit. "Allah": Satan's current status)
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To: Cronos
Christ died for our sins. Did He himself have / inherit original sin?

The scripture says Jesus Christ became sin for us...What do you think it means???

6,925 posted on 08/05/2010 7:41:39 AM PDT by Iscool (I don't understand all that I know...)
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To: Cronos
Christ died for our sins. Did He himself have / inherit original sin?

No, I think not. But Christ is special, as He is the ONLY instance where the sins of the fathers could not be passed down, as His Father was not within the curse.

I think this should be taken quite literally:

Joh 10:15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.

Joh 10:17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.
Joh 10:18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

1Jn 3:16 Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren.

(e-Sword: KJV)

6,974 posted on 08/05/2010 8:59:42 AM PDT by roamer_1 (Globalism is just Socialism in a business suit)
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