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To: wagglebee; bkaycee

Wagglebee, thank you for pointing “Bear in mind that when Christ said this he was saying it to an unlearned fisherman, not a Greek scholar” —> I missed that, that is very important. Jesus could not be accused of using a pun or anything in koine Greek when He spoke to Aramaic to an unlearned fisherman who most probably never left the banks of Galilee before he met Christ


2,929 posted on 07/28/2010 7:39:24 AM PDT by Cronos (Omnia mutantur, nihil interit)
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To: Cronos

The thought has been expressed before on this forum that Jesus Christ would switch back and forth between Greek and Aramaic to somehow ridicule His Disciples.


2,931 posted on 07/28/2010 7:43:32 AM PDT by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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To: Cronos; wagglebee; bkaycee
FWIW, a note in my Theological Dictionary of the NT, Kittle Freidrich, says:
Anyone who grew up in Bethsaida would not only understand Gk, but would also have been polished by dealings with foreigners and would have been accustomed to Gk. culture.
FWIW (Volume VI, page 100)

In the same article Bethsaida is often described as an area under Greek influence.

2,966 posted on 07/28/2010 8:41:44 AM PDT by Mad Dawg (O Maria, sine labe concepta, ora pro nobis qui ad te confugimus.)
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