[small voice in the wilderness]

..although this particular verse can go a long way to disprove the Immaculate Conception of MARY.

If Mary had been immaculately conceived herself, then there would be NO woman who could possibly be viewed in light of Christ's words, "Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist..."

That would have been a lie. And we know that isn't possible. Surely Jesus Christ would have KNOWN that His mother was also immaculately conceived...hmmmm....

[Natural Law]

"If Mary had been immaculately conceived herself, then there would be NO woman who could possibly be viewed in light of Christ's words,"

So just exactly when are you to take scripture absolutely literally and when do you rely on YOPIS?

[Mad Dawg]

The issue is whether we can properly use the tools of modern set theory to analyze the statement.

For
Jesus said none born of woman is greater than John.
Jesus was greater than John.
Jesus was born of woman.

The only questionable statement is the first, and one can question it without making Jesus a liar IF one agrees that it cannot be intended with to have any more strict logical rigor than Paul's statement that all have sinned, which, if taken to its logical conclusion would mean that Jesus has sinned.

[Quix]

If Mary had been immaculately conceived herself, then there would be NO woman who could possibly be viewed in light of Christ’s words, “Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist...”

That would have been a lie. And we know that isn’t possible. Surely Jesus Christ would have KNOWN that His mother was also immaculately conceived...hmmmm....

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INDEED. EXCELLENT POINTS.