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That's outrageous. No one is denying Catholics the right or ability to interpret scripture. You give your rights away to others to interpret for you.

What does this mean? Mary's Immaculate Conception:The Church formally defined this doctrine in 1854.( Second Vatican Council, "Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation."):

"We declare, pronounce, and define that the doctrine which holds that the most Blessed Virgin Mary, in the first instant of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege granted by Almighty God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Savior of the human race, was preserved free from stain of original sin, is a doctrine revealed by God and therefore to be believed firmly and constantly by all the faithful." - Ineffabilis Deus. Pope Pius IX. (bold added by me for emphasis).

Explain the Immaculate Conception OF MARY, please. How were her parents NOT part of Adam's original sin?

"You give your rights away to others to interpret for you."

THAT is outrageous. Protestants are simply intolerant of anyone's personal interpretation differing from theirs. Protestants are simply intolerant of anyone taking input from the greatest minds in history when said input contradicts that of their local pastor, bible study leader, favorite televangelist, or 15th century heretic..

I do not doubt that Mary alone among women, in preparation for her role as the Mother of God, was conceived, born and lived a life completely free from sin.

Explain the Immaculate Conception OF MARY, please. How were her parents NOT part of Adam's original sin?

Her parents WERE "part of Adam's original sin", as you put it. She, however, was given the singular grace of being preserved from original sin at the very moment of her conception in the womb of her mother, St. Anne. This gift was given to her in anticipation of the graces her Son would win on the Cross at Calvary. It was a unique gift meant for a unique woman. Of course Our Lord was also free from original sin, since He is the Son of God and not subject to sin. That would be an absurdity.
The angel Gabriel calls her "full of grace" in the gospel of Luke. She herself says that "all generations will call me Blessed", and that "He who is mighty has done GREAT THINGS for me..."

We have to remember that Mary needed a savior, just like every other human descendant of Adam. She was saved beforehand, however, "in view of the merits of Jesus Christ..." as the encyclical states. She was preserved from all stain of sin, due to her immense dignity as the Mother of God.

ABSOLUTELY INDEED.

Oh, I think the magicsterical decreed that Mary’s parents had a magical sinless uhhhhh union . . . .

the power-mongering elitest bureaucratic political magicstericals in the Vatican seem to love to decree all kinds of UNBIBLICAL magical things that give them more power and influence over the sheeple. All the more so when they can make more money off such.

Nice and simple -- her parents WERE stained by Original Sin. Mary was, just a creature, a created being, saved by Her Son. The only difference being that God needed a Holy Ark to contain HIM, hence He created this purified ark to hold HIM

That's why, in scripture, when the angel comes to meet her, he is almost looking in awe at this creation of God, so the angel refers to her as Κεχαριτωμενη / Kecharitomene "filled with grace". This is in the past participle form so it means that sometime before the announciation Mary was filled with divine grace and that she remains full of this grace in the present (i.e. when the angel met her)