Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: count-your-change; xzins
First “I am” is the translators choice of words to use to translate the Greek “ego eimi”. Whatever their motives it is not the best translation into English, the language we speak. Time is involved and in English it has to be noted. Therefore other translators translate the Greek “ego eimi” to reflect Jesus’ CONTINUEOUS existence, i.e., “I (have) existed”, “I have been” or something similar

That is correct. These are all verbal acrobatics, stretching the meaning by implication. It means continuous existence in John 1:1, but in John 8:58 it simply alludes to pre-existing Moses, but not necessarily that he pre-existed existence or that he is the existence (ho on) itmself. And a simple eimi is translated as "I have been" in John 14:9. So, it is a human choice of words.

443 posted on 07/11/2010 10:20:34 AM PDT by kosta50 (The world is the way it is even if YOU don't understand it)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 434 | View Replies ]


To: kosta50
Quite simply Jesus was saying he existed before Abraham existed and he obviously existed at the moment he was speaking (the present), action began in the past and continuing into the present. An undefined length of time but clearly more than 50 years or so.

In deed John 14:9 is an example of an action began in the past and continuing into the present, represented by the word “eimi”.

459 posted on 07/11/2010 11:26:48 AM PDT by count-your-change (You don't have be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 443 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson