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To: Stingray; Quix; GiovannaNicoletta
You conveniently avoid the fact that I gave you Strongs definitions for the word. There was MORE than 1. More than yours.

Next, if you would have read the verses that I sent you, it would have been pretty obvious that the Roman empire WAS NOT implied.

It looks to me, that given multiple options of definitions, and differing contexts, and your refusal to even study the texts or admit differing meanings, shows you are the one interpreting scripture through the eyes of bias

273 posted on 07/03/2010 11:33:45 PM PDT by mountn man (The pleasure you get from life, is equal to the attitude you put into it.)
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To: mountn man

You conveniently avoid the fact that I gave you Strongs definitions for the word. There was MORE than 1. More than yours.
Next, if you would have read the verses that I sent you, it would have been pretty obvious that the Roman empire WAS NOT implied.

It looks to me, that given multiple options of definitions, and differing contexts, and your refusal to even study the texts or admit differing meanings, shows you are the one interpreting scripture through the eyes of bias


INDEED TO THE MAX.


278 posted on 07/03/2010 11:35:59 PM PDT by Quix (THE PLAN of the Bosses: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2519352/posts?page=2#2)
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To: mountn man

“Next, if you would have read the verses that I sent you, it would have been pretty obvious that the Roman empire WAS NOT implied.”

OK, let’s look at some of your supposed “other meanings” and read your verses in context:

Acts 17:31

Paul is speaking to Greeks in Athens on the Aeropagus. Let’s see...would Greeks of that day understand oikumene as being composed of countries that didn’t even exist yet, or of the Roman Empire???

Let’s see what one of your transliterations says:

“the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians

“the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire”

Hmmm...what’s more logical to assume, that Paul used the word “oikumene” to mean the world as we know it today, or the world as his audience knew it back then???

Yeah, that’s a tough one. O.o

How ‘bout another: Romans 10:18

But I say, have they not heard? Yes indeed: “Their sound has gone out to all the earth, And their words to the ends of the world.” Romans 10:18 (NKJV)

You do understand that Paul is quoting Psalms 19:4 here, right?

Their line has gone out through all the earth, And their words to the end of the world. In them He has set a tabernacle for the sun, Psalms 19:4 (NKJV)

Paul uses 2 Greek words to translate from the Hebrew of Psalms 19:4: “ge”, for “earth” which translated means, “soil; by extension a region, or the solid part or the whole of the terrene globe (including the occupants in each application)” and “oikoumene”, which translated here means, “ land, i.e. the (terrene part of the) globe; specifically, the Roman empire,”

Paul was using both words - as did David - to convey that the gospel was being spread throughout the whole earth (”ge”) and the Roman Empire (oikoumene).

Again, the Greek word oikoumene remains consistent with the usage that refers to the Roman Empire.

I’ll let you digest that and deal with the rest later.


287 posted on 07/03/2010 11:58:11 PM PDT by Stingray (Stand for the truth or you'll fall for anything.)
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