[mountn man]

The same Greek word "oikoumene", which is used in Matthew 24:14 (translated world) is used in Luke 2. So tell me, when Caesar sent forth a proclamation that "all the world" shoukd be registered, was Caesar Augustus referring to those living in North, Central and South America? Was he referring to those living in China, Russia or Japan???

No: the decree went forth throughout the entire ROMAN EMPIRE because THAT'S WHAT CAESAR CONTROLLED!

That's what "oikoumene" means in Luke 2. It means the same thing in Matthew 24: the ROMAN EMPIRE: that's what "all the world" meant to the people living in Jesus' time!

Once you begin to understand that, the rest of the truth will begin to fall into place for you.

The same word is used in Acts 17:31, Romans 10:18, Hebrews 1:6, Hebrews 2:5, Revelation 3:10, Revelation 12:9, Revelation 16:14.

It would be a stretch in the least to read this word in these contexts and then to think that it meant the Roman empire.

Transliterated Word
Oikoumene
Phonetic Spelling
oy-kou-men'-ay

Definition
the inhabited earth
the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians
the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire
the whole inhabited earth,
the world
the inhabitants of the earth, men the universe, the world

[Stingray]

“It would be a stretch in the least to read this word in these contexts and then to think that it meant the Roman empire.”

Why? The proper way to interpret scripture is to take a given meaning and apply it in all instances where that word appears unless the context provides the proper meaning.

In other words, assume it means “Roman Empire” unless the context clearly shows it to mean something else! You’re starting with the premise it means something else than what it meant to the writers of the New Testament! That’s NOT the proper way to interpret scripture!

You all want “world” to mean what it means to us today, when I’ve already shown you two instances where it doesn’t mean that at all!