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Paul's Revelations from Jesus Christ were to *him alone*. Just like John's Revelation was to *him alone*.

Then why did John chronicle his Revelation and Paul did not? Why were they treated so differently? Why did Luke not even get it correct in the two passages of Acts 2 and Acts 9 which are the description of the moment of Paul's conversion?

Two or three witnesses* refers to every word being *established*. It *clearly* says this in Matt.18:16 and 2 Cor. 13:1.

The two or three witnesses cannot be the Triune God - they refer to human beings confronting another. And if it were the Triune God, I would not need the Father, the Son AND the Holy Spirit showing up to witness to me. This is a rather crazy line of thought but innovative, I must say.

Attempting to twist the clear words and understanding is an effort in futility.

Exactly. My advice is for you to abandon your novelties and head on over to Christianity. The Bible and the Catechism are pretty good documents to follow.

Paul's conversion: 1st Revelation of Christ to Paul: witnesses there but Revelation to Paul alone.

Mark, Paul's ENTIRE APOSTLES are the REVELATIONS OF JESUS CHRIST> They are chronicled in Acts-Philemon. The Church the Body of Christ IS a REVELATION. The Dispensation of the Grace of God IS a REVELATION. The human witnesses: "In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established", either from God, from Christ, from the Holy Spirit..you know, THE TRINITY. Both in Matthew and 2 Corinthians

I can't make it any clearer.

But go ahead down the *PROVE IT* highway.