Posted on 01/05/2010 9:46:47 PM PST by the_conscience
I just witnessed a couple of Orthodox posters get kicked off a "Catholic Caucus" thread. I thought, despite their differences, they had a mutual understanding that each sect was considered "Catholic". Are not the Orthodox considered Catholic? Why do the Romanists get to monopolize the term "Catholic"?
I consider myself to be Catholic being a part of the universal church of Christ. Why should one sect be able to use a universal concept to identify themselves in a caucus thread while other Christian denominations need to use specific qualifiers to identify themselves in a caucus thread?
Petronski: Again, is God powerful enough to give us free will?
RnMomof7: The question is not “could God” the question is did He??
No, the question I’m asking is “could He?”
I was correct. You do NOT understand the nature of diplomatic immunity.
Wow.
Just wow.
"I won!!"
Please don't construe this to be Calvinistic versus, say, Catholic. I have read (but not absorbed) the Institutes. Calvin wrote some interesting stuff and some I think is over the edge. And, the consubstantiation of Luther doesn't grab me as biblical, either. Personally, the most valuable text is, of course, the Bible.
And, here is where that accusation of YPIOS by most of the RCC seems to be not only unfounded, but downright silly. If the pope says something like, "Lift your arms.", aren't the individual Catholics saying to themselves, "Self, he meant lift your arms." and making a personal interpretation? What difference is it to recognize that the written message needs to be read and heeded? The difficulty appears to be that some of us come down on a different understanding of the plain text...and that spells trouble for headquarters.
And, those European reformer boys routinely squabbled between themselves about what some of the texts meant. On the big issues, however, like "Who is running the show, men or the Word?" I like the way they came down.
And, I liked the chance to listen in on your private conversation...it captures a wonderful tension. Thanks.
Don't ask me to say what I think they eat, but my son-in-law thinks curry tastes like it.
Matthew 4:19 – “Follow me, and I will make you fishers of men.”
Jeremiah 16:14-16
– “Therefore, behold, the days are coming, declares the LORD, when it shall no longer be said, ‘As the LORD lives who brought up the people of Israel out of the land of Egypt,’ but ‘As the LORD lives who brought up the people of Israel out of the north country and out of all the countries where he had driven them.’ For I will bring them back to their own land that I gave to their fathers. Behold, I am sending for many fishers, declares the LORD, and they shall catch them. And afterward I will send for many hunters, and they shall hunt them from every mountain and every hill, and out of the clefts of the rocks.”
Someone’s handing out prizes for misunderstanding the nature of diplomatic immunity?
If so, then yes, I would agree: you won.
Anything a man does that does not have Christ and the glory of God at the center is sin to God.
Hbr 11:6 But without faith [it is] impossible to please [him]: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
That's better than the previous version.
So, to you God can sin?? To that I say WOW !!
Hinduism has karma as a supreme law. Is it?
Sorry, I guess that one went right over your head.
When does God stop being God and man becomes His God, telling Him what to do and how to do it?
Who is God? Is it the God of the bible or mans free will?? That is the question..
Is God subject to your will Petronski?
I believe in response to YOUR "pawn to King's Bishop 4" my answer is
God does not "have the ability" to sin, because sinning is not an ability but a disability, a defect.
(Hint: I'm doing a different understanding of "Freedom" and "Free will.")
No.
Neither is He subject to Calvin's.
Well,that just shows it wasn't YOU, So THERE!
If God sinned would He still be God?
That’s in the LXX, right?
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