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To: Elsie
We can know that Our Lady remained virgin during and after the birth of our Lord by the Tradition of the Church, which includes Scripture and the Church's teaching Magisterium.

First: the word "till" (or "until") does not mean what you claim it to mean here. It describes what happened up to the time of Christ's birth, not what happened after that. We know this because it is used elsewhere in Scripture in this way. For example, in 2 Samuel 6:23, we read that "Michal the daughter of Saul had no children till the day of her death." Now, unless you believe that Michal had children after her death, you have to admit to "till/until" can mean something other than what you claim.

Second: The Church teaches and has always held that Our Lady remained a virgin after the birth of our Lord. This teaching was handed down to us orally and in writing by those who knew the Apostles personally, for example in the Protoevangelium of James, which was written around A.D. 120. Our Lady's perpetual virginity was also taught by the great Fathers and Saints, including Hilary of Poitiers, Athanasius, Epiphanius of Salamis, Jerome, Didymus the Blind, Ambrose of Milan, Augustine, Cyril of Alexandria, and many others. Even the arch-heretics Martin Luther and Ulrich Zwingli held Mary to be perpetually virgin, and those among the early Protestants who did not explicitly teach this nevertheless remained open to it. Calvin, for example, wrote

"Let us rest satisfied with this, that no just and well-grounded inference can be drawn from these words of the Evangelist, as to what took place after the birth of Christ. He is called first-born; but it is for the sole purpose of informing us that he was born of a virgin. It is said that Joseph knew her not till she had brought forth her first-born son: but this is limited to that very time. What took place afterwards, the historian does not inform us. Such is well known to have been the practice of the inspired writers. Certainly, no man will ever raise a question on this subject, except from curiosity; and no man will obstinately keep up the argument, except from an extreme fondness for disputation" 1.
To sum up: the dogma of the Perpetual Virginity of Mary is fundamental to orthodox Christian belief. Those who choose to reject it stray from that belief.
192 posted on 12/17/2009 7:52:22 AM PST by B-Chan (Catholic. Monarchist. Texan. Any questions?)
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To: B-Chan
“..dogma of the Perpetual Virginity of Mary.."

..is Roman fantasy and part of its deification of Saint Mary!
It is plainly contradicted by the Bible not only by the CLEAR meaning of the versus listed by Elsie, but by the fact that Jesus had brothers (NOT stepbrothers, cousins, or any other twisting of the plain Greek word). James the Just was one of them.

Why on Earth do you elevate it to such an important thing? Mary was a human being, and she was married to a human man!
Does making love with her husband and having fully human children debase her in your eyes??

Their lives are a model for us, but it's wrong to portray her as a demigoddess!

203 posted on 12/17/2009 9:09:04 AM PST by ROLF of the HILL COUNTRY ( The Constitution needs No interpreting, only APPLICATION!)
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To: B-Chan
We can know that Our Lady remained virgin during and after the birth of our Lord by the Tradition of the Church, which includes Scripture and the Church's teaching Magisterium.

You are implying that you can find Mary's permanent virginhood in the scriptures which is FALSEHOOD...It's an untruth...

First: the word "till" (or "until") does not mean what you claim it to mean here. It describes what happened up to the time of Christ's birth, not what happened after that. We know this because it is used elsewhere in Scripture in this way. For example, in 2 Samuel 6:23, we read that "Michal the daughter of Saul had no children till the day of her death." Now, unless you believe that Michal had children after her death, you have to admit to "till/until" can mean something other than what you claim.

According to your own Catholic author, Jerome, you are changing the words of scripture to lead the blind into the ditch...

2Sa 6:23 Therefore Michol the daughter of Saul had no child to the day of her death.

No 'til' in that verse...

Second: The Church teaches and has always held that Our Lady remained a virgin after the birth of our Lord. This teaching was handed down to us orally and in writing by those who knew the Apostles personally, for example in the Protoevangelium of James, which was written around A.D. 120. Our Lady's perpetual virginity was also taught by the great Fathers and Saints, including Hilary of Poitiers, Athanasius, Epiphanius of Salamis, Jerome, Didymus the Blind, Ambrose of Milan, Augustine, Cyril of Alexandria, and many others. Even the arch-heretics Martin Luther and Ulrich Zwingli held Mary to be perpetually virgin, and those among the early Protestants who did not explicitly teach this nevertheless remained open to it. Calvin, for example, wrote

All that proves is that each one followed the previous one off the cliff like a heard of buffalo...The first guy said it and everyone followed...

The problem with your oral tradition is that the written words of God contradict your oral tradition...So what do you do??? You throw out the God breathed scripture and go with what you claim someone (not God) said...

It is said that Joseph knew her not till she had brought forth her first-born son: but this is limited to that very time. What took place afterwards, the historian does not inform us.

Well yes, I guess it is said...Said by the hand picked Apostles of Jesus...The historian??? What historian???

Your historian may not have told you what happened next but God lets us know in the scriptures that Mary had a herd of kids...And we don't have to guess how that happened...

To sum up: the dogma of the Perpetual Virginity of Mary is fundamental to orthodox Christian belief. Those who choose to reject it stray from that belief.

Doesn't matter what Orthodox Christianity believes...What God says is what's important...And if they don't agree, out goes Orthodox Christianity...

230 posted on 12/17/2009 10:45:37 AM PST by Iscool (I don't understand all that I know...)
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To: B-Chan; Elsie
The Blessed Virgin Mary is a "type" of The Church, the Bride of Christ. God came to us through Christ by the Blessed Virgin Mary and Christ comes to us by The [Virgin/Unadulterated] Church.

Good Book on the subject:
246 posted on 12/17/2009 12:05:27 PM PST by HighlyOpinionated (Abortion-Euthanasia kills the very people for whom Social Justice is needed.)
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To: B-Chan
For example, in 2 Samuel 6:23, we read that "Michal the daughter of Saul had no children till the day of her death." Now, unless you believe that Michal had children after her death, you have to admit to "till/until" can mean something other than what you claim.

Since the first was written in HEBREW, and the second in GREEK; I find that your claim that it can ONLY mean what you want it to mean without merit.


Second: The Church teaches and has always held that Our Lady remained a virgin after the birth of our Lord.

I understand that these stories have been handed done in the tradition of your church.<

And are there not OTHER 'stories' that state just the opposite?

280 posted on 12/17/2009 2:39:57 PM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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