As Catholics, we are in a religion that is grounded in historical facts. This makes us also grounded in things Orthodox and in things Greek. I agree that (1) the translation of St. Jerome is sufficient if received in the light of the Church, and that (2) most of the meaining of the Holy Writ is adequately explained in the vernacular teaching of the Church in any language. However, if you wish to contrast translations or argue which is better, or argue from scripture rather than from the Magisterial teaching, then you have to start with the beginning, which just happens to be in Greek.
Thank you for your observation, but in what way does it have any relevance to the current dispute? There is no disagreement contrasting translations, nor is there a reference to Magisterial teachings.
I appreciate your "weighing in" but these pointy headed pharisees seem to be content with nothing more than an opportunity to accuse, so your observation neither helps them, nor corrects me.