Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: annalex
That the Greek word is used should not be surprising since the New Testament and near all of the patristic theology was written in that language. I don’t understand your puzzlement.

Not puzzlement: mockery (though not at you). The other addressees have been putting forth the notion that some concepts, not words, cannot be understood apart from knowing the original language.

One specifically made the claim I would understand how apostasy is dependent on what bishop you answer to if only I understood a particular greek word.

248 posted on 11/15/2009 8:18:27 PM PST by papertyger (Representation without taxation is tyranny!)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 245 | View Replies ]


To: papertyger

As Catholics, we are in a religion that is grounded in historical facts. This makes us also grounded in things Orthodox and in things Greek. I agree that (1) the translation of St. Jerome is sufficient if received in the light of the Church, and that (2) most of the meaining of the Holy Writ is adequately explained in the vernacular teaching of the Church in any language. However, if you wish to contrast translations or argue which is better, or argue from scripture rather than from the Magisterial teaching, then you have to start with the beginning, which just happens to be in Greek.


252 posted on 11/16/2009 12:02:51 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 248 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson